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CFI

CFI

ASA’s CFI offers insights on difficult concepts posed in FAA exams. Each post will break down an FAA question and deconstruct the answer in a way aimed to teach aviators how to more effectively prepare themselves for their FAA examinations.

Email your questions to CFI@asa2fly.com

CFI Brief: How does a Propeller Work?

The propeller is a rotating airfoil which produces thrust by creating a positive dynamic pressure, usually on the engine side. Some exceptions include the Piaggio Avanti, shown below which uses propellers mounted in what’s often referred to as the pusher configuration.

When a propeller rotates, the tips travel at a greater speed than the hub. To compensate for the greater speed at the tips, the blades are twisted slightly. The propeller blade angles decrease from the hub to the tips with the greatest angle of incidence, or highest pitch, at the hub and the smallest at the tip. This produces a relatively uniform angle of attack (uniform lift) along the blade’s length in cruise flight.

No propeller is 100% efficient. There is always some loss of power when converting engine output into thrust. This loss is primarily due to propeller slippage. A propeller’s efficiency is the ratio of thrust horsepower (propeller output) to brake horsepower (engine output). A fixed propeller will have a peak (best) efficiency at only one combination of airspeed and RPM.

A constant-speed (controllable-pitch) propeller allows the pilot to select the most efficient propeller blade angle for each phase of flight. In this system, the throttle controls the power output as registered on the manifold pressure gauge, and the propeller control regulates the engine RPM (propeller RPM). The pitch angle of the blades is changed by governor regulated oil pressure which keeps engine speed at a constant selected RPM. A constant-speed propeller allows the pilot to select a small propeller blade angle (flat pitch) and high RPM to develop maximum power and thrust for takeoff.

To reduce the engine output to climb power after takeoff, a pilot should decrease the manifold pressure. The RPM is decreased by increasing the propeller blade angle. When the throttle is advanced (increased) during cruise, the propeller pitch angle will automatically increase to allow engine RPM to remain the same. A pilot should avoid a high manifold pressure setting with low RPM on engines equipped with a constant-speed propeller to prevent placing undue stress on engine components. To avoid high manifold pressure combined with low RPM, the manifold pressure should be reduced before reducing RPM when decreasing power settings, and the RPM increased before increasing the manifold pressure when increasing power settings.

Let’s take a look at these three sample knowledge test questions and see if we can answer them given the information from Monday and todays posts.

1. Which statement best describes the operating principle of a constant-speed propeller?
A—As throttle setting is changed by the pilot, the prop governor causes pitch angle of the propeller blades to remain unchanged.
B—A high blade angle, or increased pitch, reduces the propeller drag and allows more engine power for takeoffs.
C—The propeller control regulates the engine RPM and in turn the propeller RPM.

2. Propeller efficiency is the
A—ratio of thrust horsepower to brake horsepower.
B—actual distance a propeller advances in one revolution.
C—ratio of geometric pitch to effective pitch.

3. A fixed-pitch propeller is designed for best efficiency only at a given combination of
A—altitude and RPM.
B—airspeed and RPM.
C—airspeed and altitude.

Answers in the comments section.

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CFI Brief: FAA Safety Briefing, January 2018

The first edition of the FAA Safety Briefing for 2018 is now available and includes some great articles. One in particular that I found to be very informative is “Simple?” written by Susan Parsons. This is a great article that discusses getting back to the basics of piloting in an otherwise complex environment. To read this, and other articles, download the latest edition by selecting the below image.

Also recently published is Advisory Circular 61-65G, which replaces the -65F. This advisory circular (AC) provides guidance for pilot applicants, pilots, flight instructors, ground instructors, and examiners on the certification standards, knowledge test procedures, and other requirements in Title 14 of the Code of Federal Regulations (14 CFR) Part 61. This AC is also commonly known as your go to reference for sample endorsements for use by authorized instructors when endorsing logbooks, or other means found acceptable to the Administrator for airmen applying for a knowledge or practical test, or when certifying accomplishment of requirements for pilot operating privileges.

ASA has noted all these changes throughout this AC and updated our fill-in PDF Endorsement Labels accordingly. To download this free product check out the link below:

ASA Endorsement Labels

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CFI Brief: CX-3 Flight Computer – Indicated Airspeed

Some questions on the FAA Knowledge Exam will require you to determine approximate indicated airspeed. These types of problems are best solved with the use of a CX-3 Flight Computer. Today, we will work through a sample knowledge test question requiring us to run several different calculations on the CX-3 to determine indicated airspeed from the given information. Problems like the one below are a great way to get use to using your new go to tool in the flight bag.

On a cross-country flight, point A is crossed at 1500 hours and the plan is to reach point B at 1530 hours. Use the following information to determine the indicated airspeed required to reach point B on schedule.

Distance between A and B 70 NM
Forecast wind 310° at 15 kts
Pressure altitude 8,000 ft
Ambient temperature -10 °C
True course 270°

The required indicated airspeed would be approximately

A. 126 knots.
B. 137 knots.
C. 152 knots.

Step 1 is to determine the Ground Speed it will take to cover 70 NM in 30 minutes (1500 – 1530 hours), this information is given in the question.

From the FLT menu select the Ground Speed Function.

Input a Distance (Dist) of 70 NM and Duration (Dur) of 0.50 HR to get a Ground Speed (GS) of 140 KTS.

Step 2 we need to find the True Airspeed using our equated ground speed, forecast wind, and true course.

From the FLT menu select Wind Correction.

Input a Ground Speed (GS) of 140 KTS, True Course (TCrs) of 270°, Wind Speed (WSpd) of 15 KTS, and Wind Direction (WDir) of 310°. The CX-3 will show a TAS of 151.8 KTS.

Step 3 we can now determine the required indicated airspeed using the true airspeed determined in step 2 and the pressure altitude and ambient temperature given in the question. Note that the Indicate Airspeed is shown in the CX-3 as Calibrated Airspeed (CAS).

From the FLT menu select Airspeed.

Input a True Airspeed (TAS) of 151.8 KTS, Outside Air Temperature (OAT) of -10°C, and Pressure Altitude (PAlt) of 8,000 FT. The CX-3 will show a CAS of 137.15.

The correct answer to the above question is B: 137 knots.

For additional information on using your CX-3 Flight Computer check out the complete Users Guide at www.asa2fly.com/CX3.

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CFI Brief: Pressure Altitude Conversions

Pressure altitude is the height above the standard datum plane (SDP). The aircraft altimeter is essentially a sensitive barometer calibrated to indicate altitude in the standard atmosphere. If the altimeter is set for 29.92 “Hg SDP, the altitude indicated is the pressure altitude—the altitude in the standard atmosphere corresponding to the sensed pressure.

The SDP is a theoretical level at which the pressure of the atmosphere is 29.92 “Hg and the weight of air is 14.7 psi. As atmospheric pressure changes, the SDP may be below, at, or above sea level. Pressure altitude is important as a basis for determining aircraft performance, as well as for assigning flight levels to aircraft operating at above 18,000 feet.

The pressure altitude can be determined by any of the three following methods:

  1. By setting the barometric scale of the altimeter to 29.92 “Hg and reading the indicated altitude,
  2. By applying a correction factor to the indicated altitude according to the reported “altimeter setting,” see figure below.
  3. By using a CX-3 Flight Computer.

Let’s try a sample problem using the above chart.

1. Determine the pressure altitude at an airport that is 1,386 feet MSL with an altimeter setting of 29.55.
A—1,631 feet MSL.
B—1,731 feet MSL.
C—1,778 feet MSL.

Looking at the above chart you will see that 29.65 is not actually shown so we will need to interpolate between 29.50 and 29.60. Subtract 298 from 392 to get 94 and then divide by 2 since 29.55 is directly in the middle. You get 47 which you can now add to 298 to come up with 345 altitude correction. Add 345 onto you airport elevation to find the pressure altitude, 1,386 + 345 = 1,731 PAlt.

The correct answer is B, 1,731 feet MSL.

Here is another problem which can be solved by using your CX-3 Flight Computer.

2. Determine the pressure altitude at an airport that is 3,563 feet MSL with an altimeter setting of 29.96.
A—3,527 feet MSL.
B—3,556 feet MSL.
C—3,639 feet MSL.

Using you CX-3 open the FLT menu and select Altitude from the list. Enter your IAlt (indicated altitude) or airport elevation of 3,563 feet. Scroll down to the Baro field and enter your altimeter setting of 29.96. The CX-3 will then give you a PAlt of 3,527 feet MSL. The correct answer is A.

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CFI Brief: Altimeter Pressure Errors

High to low look out below, low to high clear the sky! If you have never heard that saying before you are probably pretty confused right now. Let me help ease that confusion and explain that today we are discussing altimeter errors when flying in areas of changing atmospheric pressures. The discussion will revolve around two specific Private Pilot Knowledge Test questions that I get calls about regularly. These questions outline common areas that trip students up, resulting in mass confusion.

1. If a flight is made from an area of low pressure into an area of high pressure without the altimeter setting being adjusted, the altimeter will indicate
A. the actual altitude above sea level.
B. higher than the actual altitude above sea level.
C. lower than the actual altitude above sea level.

2. If a flight is made from an area of high pressure into an area of lower pressure without the altimeter setting being adjusted, the altimeter will indicate
A. lower than the actual altitude above sea level.
B. higher than the actual altitude above sea level.
C. the actual altitude above sea level.

If you answered B an A, respectively, then you are also having some of the same confusion about this topic that many other students experience. Let’s start with the knowledge required to answer these questions.

It is easy to maintain a consistent height above ground if the barometric pressure and temperature remain constant, but this is rarely the case. The pressure and temperature can change between takeoff and landing on a local flight and even more drastically when flying cross country between areas of varying pressure and temperature. If these changes are not taken into consideration, flight becomes dangerous.

For example, when flying from an area of high pressure to an area of low pressure without adjusting the altimeter, a constant indicated altitude will remain but the aircraft’s actual altitude above ground level will be lower than indicated. Conversely, when flying from an area of low pressure to an area of high pressure the aircraft’s actual altitude above ground level will be higher than the indicated altitude on the altimeter. The image below is a good visual depiction of flying from an area of high pressure to an area of low pressure and the resulting altitude of the aircraft above the ground level if the altimeter is not adjusted. 

The reason so many students answer these questions incorrectly is not so much because they don’t understand the principle knowledge, but rather because they are not understanding what the question is asking. Both questions are asking what the ALTIMETER will indicate, not what the aircraft’s actual altitude is relative to the ground.

The correct answer to question 1 is C: the altimeter will indicate lower than the actual altitude above sea level. When flying from a low pressure area into a high pressure area the aircraft’s altitude will slowly increase while the altimeter remains constant; therefore, the ALTIMETER is indicating a LOWER altitude then what the aircraft is actually flying.

Vice versa, the correct answer to question 2 is B: the altimeter will indicate higher than the actual altitude above sea level. When flying from a high pressure area into a low pressure area, the aircraft’s altitude will slowly decrease while the altimeter remains constant therefore the ALTIMETER is indicating a HIGHER altitude then what the aircraft is actually flying.

Tricky questions yes, but also a very important piece of knowledge to fully understand. You should now be able to correctly answer these on your knowledge test as well as remember to adjust the altimeter when flying between different air pressure systems.

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CFI Brief: Airport Rotating Beacon

Have you ever wondered how pilots are able to determine the location of an airport at night or in reduced visibility? Well the answer is actually very simple. At night, the location of an airport can be determined by the presence of an airport rotating beacon light like the one seen in the image below. An airport beacon will assist you as a pilot in identifying the location and type of airport by the color combination the beacon is emitting.

The colors and color combinations that denote the type of airports are:

*Note: Green alone or amber alone is used only in connection with a white-and-green or white-and-amber beacon display, respectively.

A civil-lighted land airport beacon will show alternating white and green flashes. A military airfield will be identified by dual-peaked (two quick) white flashes between green flashes.

In Class B, C, D, or E airspace, operation of the airport beacon during the hours of daylight often indicates the ceiling is less than 1,000 feet and/or the visibility is less than 3 miles. However, pilots should not rely solely on the operation of the airport beacon to indicate if weather conditions are IFR or VFR.

The beacon has a vertical light distribution to make it most effective from 1–10° above the horizon, although it can be seen well above or below this spread.

Here is another nifty little tidbit you will learn once you start night flight training. Radio control of lighting is available at some airports, providing airborne control of lights by keying the aircraft’s microphone. The control system is responsive to 7, 5, or 3 microphone clicks. Keying the microphone 7 times within 5 seconds will turn the lighting to its highest intensity; 5 times in 5 seconds will set the lights to medium intensity; low intensity is set by keying 3 times in 5 seconds. Many airports, particularly airports without an operating control tower, will not keep runway lights on constantly throughout the night so it becomes the pilots responsibility to turn the runway lights on for landing or takeoff. Once the lights are keyed on they will typically remain on for 15 minutes. A quick glance in the Chart Supplement U.S. will identify an airport with pilot controlled lighting.

 

 

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CFI Brief: The ASA CX-3 Flight Computer—Coming REAL soon!

You have been asking us for an aviation flight computer with a backlit display, and trust us we’ve been listening. But we thought, if we are going to design a flight computer with a backlit display, why stop there? Wouldn’t it be cool if we had a backlit keypad as well? It sure would, so today I would like to introduce you to the next generation aviation flight computer: the ASA CX-3—complete with backlit display and keypad!

Image-1

The CX-3’s new display technology now incorporates settings for varying light conditions as well as display themes for standard, night, and daylight environments on a massive 3.2-inch LCD display. Even with the large display, we have managed to design a sleek compact unit that will fit comfortably in the palm of your hand.

The ASA CX-3 will become available in November at pilot shops and online retailers nationwide. To stay up-to-date on the latest news, check out www.asa2fly.com/CX3. We’ll be featuring CX-3 user tips on the Learn to Fly Blog very soon.

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CFI Brief: It’s Getting Hot in Here.

Today, I would like to recap Monday’s post on the aircraft engine cooling system and go over some typical questions you will likely see on your FAA Private Pilot knowledge test. First off, we learned about the effects of operating with an excessively high aircraft engine temperature and that it can lead to loss of power, excessive oil consumption, detonation, and serious engine damage. Neither of which are ideal situations when 6,000 in the air. That is why a thorough understanding of the aircraft engine and cooling system is required knowledge for any pilot. Understanding how your engine cools will help you to prevent operating outside of normal temperature ranges.

Most light aircraft engines are cooled externally by air. For internal cooling and lubrication, an engine depends on circulating oil. Engine lubricating oil not only prevents direct metal-to-metal contact of moving parts, it also absorbs and dissipates part of the engine heat produced by internal combustion. If the engine oil level is too low, an abnormally high engine oil temperature indication may result.

On the ground or in the air, excessively high engine temperatures can cause excessive oil consumption, loss of power, and possible permanent internal engine damage.

If the engine oil temperature and cylinder head temperature gauges have exceeded their normal operating range, or if the pilot suspects that the engine (with a fixed-pitch propeller) is detonating during climb-out, the pilot may have been operating with either too much power and the mixture set too lean, using fuel of too low a grade, or operating the engine with not enough oil in it. Reducing the rate of climb and increasing airspeed, enriching the fuel mixture, or retarding the throttle will help cool an overheating engine. Also, rapid throttle operation can induce detonation, which may detune the crankshaft.

The most important rule to remember in the event of a power failure after becoming airborne is to maintain safe airspeed. Now let’s go ahead and take a look at some sample knowledge test questions complete with explanations.

Excessively high engine temperatures, either in the air or on the ground, will
A. increase fuel consumption and may increase power due to the increased heat.
B. result in damage to heat-conducting hoses and warping of cylinder cooling fans.
C. cause loss of power, excessive oil consumption, and possible permanent internal engine damage.

High engine temperatures can lead to loss of power, excessive oil consumption, detonation, and serious engine damage.

If the engine oil temperature and cylinder head temperature gauges have exceeded their normal operating range, the pilot may have been operating with
A. the mixture set too rich
B. higher-than-normal oil pressure.
C. too much power and with the mixture set too lean.

Excessively high engine temperatures can result from insufficient cooling caused by too lean a mixture, too low a grade of fuel, low oil, or insufficient airflow over the engine.

Answer (A) is incorrect because a richer fuel mixture will normally cool an engine. Answer (B) is incorrect because high oil pressure does not cause high engine temperatures.

For internal cooling, reciprocating aircraft engines are especially dependent on
A. a properly functioning thermostat.
B. air flowing over the exhaust manifold.
C. the circulation of lubricating oil.

Oil, used primarily to lubricate the moving parts of the engine, also cools the internal parts of the engine as it circulates.

Answer (A) is incorrect because most air-cooled aircraft engines do not have thermostats. Answer (B) is incorrect because, although air-cooling is important, internal cooling is more reliant on oil circulation. Air cools the cylinders, not the exhaust manifold.

An abnormally high engine oil temperature indication may be caused by
A. the oil level being too low.
B. operating with a too high viscosity oil.
C. operating with an excessively rich mixture.

Oil, used primarily to lubricate the moving parts of the engine, also helps reduce engine temperature by removing some of the heat from the cylinders. Therefore, if the oil level is too low, the transfer of heat to less oil would cause the oil temperature to rise.

Answer (B) is incorrect because the higher the viscosity, the better the lubricating and cooling capability of the oil. Answer (C) is incorrect because a rich fuel/air mixture usually decreases engine temperature.

What action can a pilot take to aid in cooling an engine that is overheating during a climb?
A. Reduce rate of climb and increase airspeed.
B. Reduce climb speed and increase RPM.
C. Increase climb speed and increase RPM.

To avoid excessive cylinder head temperatures, a pilot can open the cowl flaps, increase airspeed, enrich the mixture, or reduce power. Any of these procedures will aid in reducing the engine temperature. Establishing a shallower climb (increasing airspeed) increases the airflow through the cooling system, reducing high engine temperatures.

Answer (B) is incorrect because reducing airspeed hinders cooling, and increasing RPM will further increase engine temperature. Answer (C) is incorrect because increasing RPM will increase engine temperature.

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CFI Brief: The Instrument Approach Procedure Chart

On Monday, we learned about the Instrument Landing System and it’s components. Today, I would like to further our discussion and talk about Instrument Approach Procedure Charts. These charts are what depict to pilots how to fly a particular approach into an airport. Many instrument approaches will require the use of an ILS or it’s Localizer component.

With use of the depicted information on an IAP chart a pilot will be assured of terrain and obstruction clearance and runway or airport alignment during approach for landing.

The IAP chart may be divided into four distinct areas: the Plan View, showing the route to the airport; the Profile View, showing altitude and descent information; the Minimums Section, showing approach categories, minimum altitudes, and visibility requirements; and the Airport diagram, showing runway alignments, runway lights, and approach lighting systems.

  1. The Plan View is that portion of the IAP chart depicted at “A” in the figure below. Atop the IAP chart is the procedure identifications which will depict the A/C equipment necessary to execute the approach, the runway alignment, the name of the airport, the city and state of airport location (See Figure Area #1). An ILS approach, for example, requires the aircraft to have an operable localizer, glide slope, and marker beacon receiver. An LOC/DME approach would require the aircraft to be equipped with both a localizer receiver and distance measuring equipment (DME). If the approach is aligned within 30° of the centerline, the runway number listed at the top of the approach chart means straight-in landing minimums are published for that runway. If the approach course is not within 30° of the runway centerline, an alphabetic code will be assigned to tie IAP identification (for example, NDB-A, VOR-C), indicating that only circle-to-land minimums are published. This would not preclude a pilot from landing straight-in, however, if the pilot has the runway in sight in sufficient time to make a normal approach for landing, and has been cleared to land.

The IAP plan view will list in either upper corner, the approach control, tower, and other communications frequencies a pilot will need. Some listings may include a direction (for example, North 120.2, South 120.8).

The IAP plan view may contain a Minimum Sector Altitude (MSA) diagram. The diagram shows the altitude that would provide obstacle clearance of at least 1,000 feet in the defined sector while within 25 NM of the primary omnidirectional NAVAID; usually a VOR or NDB (See Figure Area #2).

An IAP may include a procedural track around a DME arc to intercept a radial. An arc-to-radial altitude restriction applies while established on that segment of the IAP.

  1. The Profile View is that portion of the IAP chart depicted at “B” in the Figure. The profile view shows a side view of the procedures. This view includes the minimum altitude and maximum distance for the procedure turn, altitudes over prescribed fixes, distances between fixes, and the missed approach procedure.
  2. The Minimums Section is that portion of the IAP chart depicted at “C” in the Figure. The categories listed on instrument approach charts are based on aircraft speed. The speed is 1.3 times VS0 at maximum certificated gross landing weight.
  3. The Aerodrome Data is that portion of the IAP chart which includes an airport diagram, and depicts runway alignments, runway lights, approach lights, and other important information, such as the touchdown zone elevation (TDZE) and airport elevation (See figure area “D”).

TP-I-08-02

Take a look a the IAP Chart Figure below and see if you can determine the following. Answers will be posted in the comments section.

  1. What is the minimum equipment required for this approach?
  2. What are the noted minimum safe altitudes (MSA)?
  3. What is the decision altitude (DA) if conducting a straight in approach?

instrument_179

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CFI Brief: October 2017 Test Roll

The FAA October test cycle resulted in very few changes or updates to the FAA Airman Knowledge Tests. The FAA Aviation Exam Board continues to work to align questions within the context of a specific Area of Operation/Task as outlined in the various Airman Certification Standards publications. The goal of this boarding process is to ensure all test questions correlate to a knowledge, risk management or skill element. The FAA makes their intentions clear by the Frequently Asked Questions and What’s New documents which are posted each test cycle. Below is a list of the most recent changes affecting all knowledge test question banks. The next test cycle is expected February 2018.

  • References to the Airport/Facility Directory (A/FD) have been changed to this publication’s new name, “Chart Supplement.”
  • U.S. format Flight Plans – New questions based on the new U.S. flight plan will be developed and implemented by June 2018.
  • Student Pilot/Medical Certificate – New questions based on the Student Pilot Certificate rule that took effect on 1 April 2016 are expected by October 16, 2017.
  • Rote memorization questions such as the following have been removed (e.g., Validity period for unscheduled products such as SIGMETS).
  • Operationally irrelevant questions have been removed (e.g., Meaning of brackets near station model on a WX depiction chart).
  • The following topics have been removed from FAA Knowledge Tests (effective June 12, 2017):
    • 4-panel prog charts
    • Weather depiction chart
    • Area forecasts
    • Aerobatic flight

Recent changes affecting the Private Pilot Airplane Knowledge Test:

  • Aircraft performance and weather questions that involve multiple interpolations across multiple charts do not include multiple interpolations across multiple charts.

Recent changes affecting the Instrument Rating Airplane Knowledge Test:

  • The following subjects have been removed:
    • Airport Surveillance Radar (ASR) approaches
    • Composite Flight Plans
    • Designation of instruments as “primary” or “secondary” for aircraft control
    • Inner Marker, Middle Marker
    • Specific number of degrees on glide path
    • Time and distance questions involving multiple interpolation
    • BARO VNAV (IRA ONLY)
    • Back Course Approaches (IRA ONLY)
    • LDA & SDF (IRA ONLY)
    • Aircraft performance and weather questions that involve multiple interpolations across multiple charts

These changes have been noted by ASA and updates for Prepware Software, Prepware Online, and Test Prep books will be available shortly. If you would like to be notified when these updates have become available be sure to follow the link below and sign-up for notifications.

http://www.asa2fly.com/testupdate

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